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Sat 27 Dec 2014 12:08 Mike Farrell From: Canada Alberta

A couple of questions: 1. My knowledge of historical linguistics is somewhat limited but I have seen some recent theories that the Bulgarian language is from the Iranian family. See https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=O4oLGws3bNo. What is your opinion of this theory? 2. Did the Pechenegs settle in Bosnia?

1. There is a big quasi-scientific hoopla going on in Russia to bring everybody to Iranian languages, supposedly related to Slavic, thus make a genetic connection between Slavic component and, say, Turkic. The Bulgars, Bashkirs are at front of it, or are its first victims. The base is practically non-existent, so any resemblance is pumped up to the upmost, first, and the definition of what is Iranian is most vague, second. See Dybo A. "Linguistic contacts of Early Turks" for reconstructions of Proto-Turkic using Bulgarian, with some of her acidic notes on attributions. It is a circus. 2. Yes, they did.

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